Animal Science I Exam Review | Baamboozle - Baamboozle

What degree generally requires additional specialization of two or more years and can result in a dissertation?

Doctoral degree

Associate degree

Bachelor’s degree

Master’s degree

What degree results after an additional two years at a college or university and requires a project or thesis?

Master’s degree

Associate degree

Bachelor’s degree

Doctoral degree

What degree is usually conferred upon the completion of a two-year degree program?

Associate degree

Bachelor’s degree

Master’s degree

Doctoral degree

Which specialist selects and breeds animals to produce offspring with desired characteristics?

Animal breeder

Farmer/rancher

Animal waste management technician

Nutritionist

Which occupational category uses technical skills to produce animals and animal-related products?

Animal production specialists

Social services professionals

Education, communication, and information specialists

Managers and financial specialists

Which officer enforces the law to protect animals through intervention and education?

Animal welfare officer

Conservation officer

Groomer

Kennel attendant

Which officer educates the public about wildlife, investigates wildlife crimes, and assists in management research?

Conservation officer

Animal welfare officer

Groomer

Cooperative extension agent

Which professional provides cosmetic services for animals?

Groomer

Kennel attendant

Wildlife rehabilitator

Veterinary technician

Which occupational category uses communication skills and technical expertise to perform services and provide information?

Social services professionals

Education, communication, and information specialists

Marketing, merchandising, and sales representatives

Animal production specialists

Which professional educates students about agriculture, food, and natural resources?

Agricultural education teacher

Cooperative extension agent

Animal trainer

Animal behaviorist

Which university employee develops and delivers educational programs to assist people in agriculture and healthy living?

Cooperative extension agent

Agricultural education teacher

Financial analyst

Business manager

Which specialist studies the way animals behave and tries to determine what causes certain types of behavior?

Animal behaviorist

Animal trainer

Zoologist

Nutritionist

Which specialist trains animals for obedience, performance, riding, security, or assisting people with disabilities?

Animal trainer

Animal behaviorist

Groomer

Veterinarian

Which occupational category uses communication skills to share information about the animal industry?

Education, communication, and information specialists

Social services professionals

Animal production specialists

Scientists, engineers, and related specialists

Which specialist researches target consumers and designs advertising campaigns for animal-related products?

Product marketing specialist

Pharmaceutical sales representative

Financial analyst

Animal trainer

Which representative informs veterinary professionals about new and improved pharmaceutical products?

Pharmaceutical sales representative

Financial analyst

Business manager

Pet insurance agent

Which occupational category uses communication and technology skills to trade animal-related products?

Marketing, merchandising, and sales representatives

Managers and financial specialists

Medical specialists

Social services professionals

Which specialist provides guidance for financial planning, analysis, and projection for animal-related companies?

Financial analyst

Business manager

Veterinarian

Animal trainer

Which specialist supervises and leads an animal-related company’s operations and employees?

Business manager

Financial analyst

Pet insurance agent

Product marketing specialist

Which agent sells and manages insurance policies for pets and assists owners in filing claims?

Pet insurance agent

Financial analyst

Pharmaceutical sales representative

Business manager

Which occupational category uses human relation and communication skills to provide economic guidance?

Managers and financial specialists

Medical specialists

Marketing, merchandising, and sales representatives

Social services professionals

What professional examines and provides care to sick, injured, or orphaned wildlife to return them to the wild?

Wildlife rehabilitator

Veterinarian

Veterinary technician

Animal welfare officer

Which professional provides basic care for animals in veterinary clinics, adoption shelters, or boarding facilities?

Kennel attendant

Groomer

Conservation officer

Wildlife rehabilitator

Which professional assists veterinarians in diagnosing and treating animals in private clinics and research facilities?

Veterinary technician

Veterinarian

Zoologist

Financial analyst

What licensed medical professional treats, cures, and prevents illness and injury in animals?

Veterinarian

Veterinary technician

Wildlife rehabilitator

Kennel attendant

Which occupational category provides preventive and therapeutic medical treatment to animals?

Medical specialists

Scientists, engineers, and related specialists

Animal production specialists

Education, communication, and information specialists

Which specialist designs and creates enclosures for animals in captivity that support their natural habitat?

Life support engineer

Nutritionist

Zoologist

Animal breeder

What specialist studies a variety of animal species and may work in zoos or governmental agencies?

Zoologist

Veterinarian

Nutritionist

Life support engineer

What specialist creates rations for animals based on their individual nutritional needs?

Nutritionist

Zoologist

Veterinarian

Animal breeder

Which occupational category performs research to improve the competitive position of the animal industry?

Scientists, engineers, and related specialists

Medical specialists

Managers and financial specialists

Social services professionals

Which two motions listed do not require recognition from the chair to speak?

Point of Order and Division

Main Motion and Amendment

Adjourn and Previous Question

Treasurer's Report and New Business

Which motion is used to request/require a counted vote?

Division of Assembly

Point of Order

Previous Question

Adjourn

The motion for the Previous Question requires what kind of vote?

2/3 majority vote

Majority vote

Unanimous vote

Plurality vote

Which motion is used to end debate on a motion?

Previous Question

Adjourn

Point of Order

Division of Assembly

Which motion is used to bring a lapse in parliamentary procedure to the chair’s attention?

Point of Order

Previous Question

Division of Assembly

Adjourn

The motion to adjourn takes precedence over all other motions.

TRUE

FALSE

Only over the Main Motion

Only over Amendments

Which motion is used to close the meeting?

Adjourn

Main motion

Amendment

Previous Question

The motion to amend requires what kind of vote for adoption?

Majority vote

Two-thirds vote

Unanimous vote

Simple vote

How many amendments can be considered at a time?

Only one

Two

Three

Four

Which motion is used to change a motion by striking out, adding, or substituting words?

Amendment

Main motion

Adjourn

Previous Question

A main motion requires what kind of vote for adoption?

Majority vote

Two-thirds vote

Unanimous vote

Simple vote

How many main motions can be on the floor or before the group at the same time?

Only one

Two

Three

Four

Which motion is used to present a new item of business for consideration?

Main motion

Amendment

Adjourn

Previous Question

What phrase must a member use to state a motion?

“I move…”

“I suggest…”

“I propose…”

“I recommend…”

When making a motion, which person states the question on the motion?

The chair

The member making the motion

The member seconding the motion

The Secretary

What can be used on occasion to help restore order during a meeting?

A series of taps

One tap

Two taps

Three taps

How many taps of the gavel signal all members to stand in unison?

Three taps

One tap

Two taps

A series of taps

How many taps of the gavel are used to call the meeting to order?

Two taps

One tap

Three taps

Four taps

How many taps of the gavel signal members to sit down or announce the completion of a vote?

One tap

Two taps

Three taps

A series of taps

What does the gavel represent or symbolize for the presiding officer?

Authority

Power

Respect

Order

Observing the rule of the majority requires how many members entitled to vote to agree before action is taken?

Over half

Two-thirds

Less than half

One-third

The rule that only one motion is allowed on the floor at one time helps the group focus on what?

One item at a time

The will of the minority

The next agenda item

Courtesy to everyone

What is the purpose of parliamentary procedure regarding speech during a meeting?

Only one member may speak at a time

Members may speak without recognition

Two members may speak at a time

Only officers may speak

Which method of voting involves calling each member’s name?

Roll call

Ballot

Voice

Rising

Which method of voting extends anonymity?

Ballot

Voice

Rising

Roll call

In which voting method are members asked to stand or raise their hands?

Rising

Voice

Roll call

Ballot

In which voting method do members vote by speaking aloud?

Voice

Rising

Roll call

Ballot

What vote is required for motions that take away privileges?

Two-thirds vote

Majority vote

Roll call vote

Voice vote

What is the term for when more than half of those voting vote on the same side?

Majority vote

Two-thirds vote

Plurality vote

Roll call vote

If the President is not presiding, what is the proper address for the person presiding?

Mr./Madam/Mx. Chairman or Chairperson

Mr./Madam/Mx. President

The Floor

The Sentinel

What is business that was unfinished from a previous meeting called?

Unfinished business

New business

Standing committee reports

Treasurer’s report

In the FFA Sample Order of Business, what happens immediately after the Call to Order?

Reading/approval of minutes from previous meeting

Treasurer’s report

New business

Report from standing committees

What is the sequence followed in conducting a business meeting?

Order of business

Agenda

Treasurer’s report

Standing committee report

What is the list of items prepared prior to the meeting date to be discussed or handled during the meeting?

Agenda

Minutes

Order of business

Treasurer’s report

What terms are used to describe those assembled as voting delegates in a business meeting?

Assembly, body, floor, and house

Agenda, minutes, motion

Chair, President, Secretary

Committee, Federation, Region

Who wrote Robert's Rules of Order?

Henry M. Robert

Thomas Jefferson

George Washington

Abraham Lincoln

What is the name of the book that serves as the basis for parliamentary law?

Robert’s Rules of Order

Order of Business

Parliamentary Authority

The By-law Handbook

What is the set of well-defined rules to conduct business through a formal, organized approach called?

Parliamentary procedure

Adjournment

Order of Business

The Agenda

Fluency, sincerity, emphasis, and directness are components of what presentation skill?

Power of expression

Voice

Stage presence

General effect

Appearance, poise, attitude, confidence, and posture are all elements of what presentation skill?

Stage presence

Power of expression

General effect

Response to questions

What are the four components of Voice when presenting a speech?

Pitch quality, articulation, pronunciation, force

Appearance, poise, attitude, posture

Fluency, sincerity, emphasis, directness

Interesting, understandable, convincing, pleasing

What element of speech preparation is concerned with special events such as banquets or leadership conferences?

Occasion

Purpose

Audience

Body

The consideration of "who" you are going to present to is referred to as what element of speech preparation?

Audience

Purpose

Occasion

Outline

When preparing a speech, a specific reason like explaining a new technology relates to the speech's what?

Purpose

Occasion

Audience

Outline

The part of a speech that begins with the main points and arranges them in logical order is called the what?

Body

Introduction

Conclusion

Purpose

Which basic part of a speech summarizes the main points of your speech?

Conclusion

Introduction

Body

Outline

Which basic part of a speech is intended to grab the attention of your audience?

Introduction

Body

Conclusion

Main Point

What is the general term for delivering content to an audience, as described in the text?

Public speaking

Communication

Power of Expression

Stage Presence

Speeches given with little or no preparation are known as what?

Extemporaneous

Prepared

Informative

Persuasive

A speech that is written and learned prior to presenting is classified as what type of speech?

Prepared

Informative

Persuasive

Extemporaneous

Which type of speech is given to change or sway the mind of the audience?

Persuasive

Informative

Prepared

Extemporaneous

A speech given to provide information is what type of speech?

Informative

Persuasive

Prepared

Extemporaneous

The durable skill of Fortitude is described as what?

Constitution and inspiration

Teamwork and connection

Information exchange and management

Self-understanding and personal management

Which durable skill focuses on "improvement and aspiration"?

Growth Mindset

Fortitude

Critical Thinking

Character

Mindfulness is explained as what two concepts?

Interpersonal and self-awareness

Directing efforts and delivering results

New ideas and novel solutions

Informed ideas and effective solutions

The durable skill of Metacognition is defined as what?

Self-understanding and personal management

Improvement and aspiration

Constitution and inspiration

Interpersonal and self-awareness

Informed ideas and effective solutions is the definition of which durable skill?

Critical Thinking

Metacognition

Mindfulness

Leadership

Which durable skill is defined by "new ideas and novel solutions"?

Creativity

Collaboration

Communication

Character

Information exchange and management is the key focus of which durable skill?

Communication

Leadership

Fortitude

Creativity

Which durable skill involves "teamwork and connection"?

Collaboration

Growth Mindset

Critical Thinking

Metacognition

Personal and professional conduct is the explanation for which durable skill?

Character

Mindfulness

Collaboration

Communication

Which durable skill is defined as "directing efforts and delivering results"?

Leadership

Character

Fortitude

Creativity

What assists the chapter in setting goals and developing plans and steps to reach those goals?

Program of Activities (POA)

Opening and Closing Ceremony

FFA Mission Statement

Officer and Committee Positions

What types of individual awards are based on a student's SAE program?

Proficiency Awards

Leadership Awards

Presidential Awards

State Champion Awards

What type of events are designed to develop communication skills?

Leadership Development Events (LDE)

Career Development Events (CDE)

Proficiency Awards

Program of Activities (POA)

What type of event is designed to build career skills of FFA members?

Career Development Events (CDE)

Leadership Development Events (LDE)

Proficiency Awards

Program of Activities (POA)

What are the two official colors of the FFA?

National blue and corn gold

Forest green and sun yellow

American red and navy blue

Sky blue and dirt brown

What does the Rising Sun symbolize in the FFA emblem?

Agricultural opportunity and progress

Labor and tillage of the soil

Knowledge and wisdom

The national scope of the FFA and freedom

What does the Owl symbolize in the FFA emblem?

Knowledge and wisdom

Agricultural opportunity and progress

The national scope of the FFA and freedom

Common agricultural interest and unity

What does the Eagle symbolize in the FFA emblem?

The national scope of the FFA and freedom

Knowledge and wisdom

Labor and tillage of the soil

Common agricultural interest and unity

What is the highest level of the FFA structure?

National FFA Organization

North Carolina Association

Region

Federation

What is the lowest level of the FFA structure in North Carolina?

Local chapter

Federation

Region

North Carolina Association

Which officer welcomes members and guests and assists the President in maintaining order?

Sentinel

Reporter

Chaplain

Treasurer

Which officer informs and reports events and sits beside the American flag?

Reporter

Sentinel

President

Vice President

Which officer keeps financial records and sits beside the emblem of Washington?

Treasurer

Vice President

Secretary

President

Which officer keeps accurate minutes and sits beside the ear of corn?

Secretary

Treasurer

Reporter

Sentinel

Which officer sits beside the plow and coordinates committee work?

Vice President

Sentinel

Treasurer

President

Which officer presides over meetings and sits beside the rising sun?

President

Vice President

Reporter

Secretary

What do the Agriculture Education and FFA words on the emblem symbolize?

The combination of learning and leadership

Opportunity and progress

Common agricultural interest and unity

Freedom and wisdom

What is the FFA motto?

Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earning to Live, Living to Serve

We Believe in the Future of Agriculture

Dedication, Education, and Application

Premier Leadership, Personal Growth, Career Success

When were females admitted into the FFA?

1969

1965

1971

1928

What year did the FFA and NFA merge?

1965

1928

1969

1971

What organization was formed in 1935?

New Farmers of America (NFA)

National FFA Alumni Association

North Carolina FFA Association

Future Farmers of America

What year was the National FFA Organization established?

1928

1935

1965

1969

What are the three parts of an Agricultural Education program?

Classroom instruction, SAE, and FFA

CDE, LDE, and SAE

Banquets, Conventions, and Conferences

President, Vice President, and Secretary

What does the Plow symbolize in the FFA emblem?

Labor and tillage of the soil

Knowledge and wisdom

Common agricultural interest and unity

National scope of the FFA and freedom

40. During reasons, grants and criticisms are given to:

Acknowledge strengths and faults

Confuse the judge

Lengthen the speech

Replace comparisons

39. The summary of reasons should provide:

A final statement

New data

A repeat of entire reasons

Random comments

38. During reasons, the presenter should:

Use correct terminology

Whisper softly

Avoid comparative terms

Skip the introduction

37. Oral reasons must be:

Accurate and organized

Longer than 5 minutes

Based on opinions only

Delivered with no eye contact

36. The top pair in a class includes:

First and second place

Second and third

Third and fourth

First and fourth

35. Comparative notes compare animals:

In each pair

Only at the end

Only by color

By age alone

34. Individual notes describe:

An animal’s best or worst traits

The judge’s clothing

The feed type used

Background music

33. Visual observation notes include:

Identification notes

Weather conditions

Judge’s preference

Feed type

32. Temperament of a companion animal should match:

Owner expectations

Breed stereotypes only

Feeding schedule

Coat color

31. Companion animals should show adequate:

Energy levels

Aggression

Fear responses

Unpredictability

30. A desirable trait in companion animal parents is:

No history of genetic disorders

Unpredictable temperament

Chronic joint problems

Frequent seizures

29. Companion animals should be free of:

Skin or fur issues

Natural coat variation

Distinct breed markings

Minor shedding

28. High-producing layers have:

Large body capacity

Rigid abdomen

Narrow pubic bones

Thick, rough shanks

27. Productive layers have:

Bright, round eyes

Darkened eyelids

Strong yellow beaks

No bleaching

26. Bleaching in layers occurs first at the:

Vent

Shanks

Beak

Top of toes

25. Broiler defects include:

Bruises or watery blisters

Soft and flexible abdomen

Evenly spaced teats

Full pigmentation

24. Broilers should have desirable feathers and:

Large breast meat

Green shanks

Crooked toes

Black feathers

23. Ideal backfat at the 10th rib is:

0.8 inch

2.0 inches

1.6 inches

0.2 inch

22. The groove along a hog’s top indicates:

Muscling of the loin

Lack of finish

Poor structure

Bone weakness

21. The widest part of a well-muscled hog should be the:

Lower ham

Shoulder

Topline

Neck

20. Ideal swine market animals are:

Well-muscled and balanced

Narrow-chested

Shallow-bodied

Lacking finish

19. Swine reproductive efficiency includes:

Number of pigs born

Breast muscle width

Growth plate angle

Feather condition

18. Trimness in swine means being:

Clean over loin edge

Heavy in waste

Thick in backfat

Short-bodied

17. A desirable swine muscle type includes:

Long and flatter muscle

Round short muscle

Weak muscling

Narrow top

16. Swine breeding animals should be evaluated for:

Physical soundness

Excessive backfat

High somatic cell count

Black pigmentation

15. Evenly balanced quarters and well-placed teats indicate:

High-quality udder structure

Low milk quality

Poor milking ability

Abnormal teats

14. A well-attached udder should be held:

Above the hocks

Below the hocks

Even with the hocks

Touching the ground

13. Reproductive history includes:

Conception rate and calving interval

Slaughter weight

Carcass grade

Udder texture

12. Dairy feed records show:

Daily feed costs per cwt of milk

Total days open

Pedigree value

Average daily gain

11. Production records measure:

Pounds of milk, fat, and protein

Number of calves born

Feed conversion ratio

Amount of time grazing

10. A pedigree identifies:

Maternal and paternal lines

Feed intake history

Udder score

Coat color changes

9. Accurate and reliable records help dairy producers:

Make sound management decisions

Increase pigmentation loss

Reduce milk production

Choose animals randomly

8. Replacement heifers should be genetically predisposed to:

Quality udders and milking ability

Large amounts of backfat

Low fertility

Poor calving ease

7. Replacement heifers should have which temperament?

Quiet disposition

Aggressive behavior

Nervous and flighty

Easily stressed

6. A low feed-to-gain ratio means an animal:

Converts feed efficiently

Eats more but grows less

Produces excess fat

Has poor structure

5. Feeder cattle should have a high:

Average daily gain

Somatic cell score

Backfat thickness

Calving difficulty

4. Structurally correct feet and legs are especially important when selecting:

Bulls

Replacement heifers

Feeder cattle

Broilers

3. Bulls should be selected for producing calves with:

High weaning/yearling weights

Low weaning weights

Poor muscling

High birth weights

2. Excessive milk production in cows may reduce:

Rebreeding success

Udder size

Weaning weights

Feed intake

1. Cows should produce calves with what characteristic to reduce calving issues?

Low birth weight

High birth weight

No birth weight requirement

Random birth weights

40. U.S. pork yield grades include:

No. 1–4 and Utility

Prime–Canner

A–D

1–20 scale

39. Pork yield grades consider factors such as:

LEA, HCW, backfat

Tail length

Hoof size

Hair color

38. Beef Yield Grade 1 animals have:

Least fat waste

Highest fat waste

Lowest muscling

Poor firmness

37. Dressing percentage compares carcass weight to:

Live weight

Ribeye area

Growth rate

Fat score

36. Acceptable pork has meat that is:

Reddish-pink and firm

Pale and soft

Greenish

Extremely fatty

35. Pork usually has only two quality grades:

Acceptable and Utility

Prime and Choice

Standard and Select

None

34. Highest USDA beef quality grade is:

Prime

Utility

Select

Standard

33. Marbling refers to:

Fat in lean muscle

Fat under skin

Bone density

External fat

32. USDA beef grades indicate:

Quality

Sanitation

Breed

Health

31. Immature animals failing criteria typically become:

Market animals

Breeding stock

Show animals

Pets

30. One reason to cull an animal is:

Poor reproductive efficiency

Fast growth

Calm behavior

Good muscle

29. Culling refers to removing animals with:

Poor traits

High traits

Good temperament

Strong genetics

28. WW in EPDs stands for:

Weaning weight

Wool weight

Width of withers

Winter weight

27. BW in EPDs stands for:

Birth weight

Body width

Back weight

Balanced weight

26. EPDs compare animals based on:

Genetic potential

Color

Market weight

Hair type

25. Sperm morphology checks for:

Abnormalities

Color

Smell

Age

24. Sperm motility measures:

Forward movement

Size

Number

Color

23. Scrotal circumference measurement indicates:

Fertility

Meat quality

Weight

Breed

22. A BSE evaluates:

Fertility

Coat color

Attitude

Fat thickness

21. ADG = (Final weight – Initial weight) ÷:

Days between weights

Feed per day

Age

Frame size

20. Average Daily Gain measures:

Weight gain over time

Exercise level

Appetite

Bone growth

19. Pedigree refers to:

Animal ancestry

Market weight

Growth rate

Coat pattern

18. Additional selection criteria include:

Age, temperament, feeding needs

Coat color only

Weight only

Breed only

17. Companion animal selection is NOT based on:

Processed product traits

Behavior

Conformation

Health

16. Average market lamb weight is:

125 pounds

270 pounds

1300 pounds

50 pounds

15. Average beef cattle market weight is:

1300 pounds

75 pounds

270 pounds

500 pounds

14. Average market hog weight is:

270 pounds

125 pounds

1300 pounds

75 pounds

13. Market animals are selected for:

Muscle, frame, finish

Pedigree only

Age only

Color patterns

12. Breeding animals are selected mostly for:

Conformation and structural soundness

Finish alone

Color alone

Market weight only

11. Balance means body parts:

Blend attractively

Are heavily muscled

Are the same size

Grow at the same rate

10. Animals showing appropriate masculine or feminine traits reflect:

Breed and sex character

Balance

Muscling

Finish

9. Larger-framed animals are usually perceived as yielding more:

Meat or milk

Hair

Wool

Organs

8. Frame size compares animals of similar:

Age

Sex only

Breed only

Production data

7. Body capacity is evaluated by the animal’s:

Rib depth

Head size

Tail width

Ear length

6. Structural soundness is based on:

Feet, legs, and bone structure

Skin color

Tail length

Hair texture

5. Finish refers to the amount of:

Fat

Muscle

Bone

Marbling

4. A flat appearance with visible bone edges indicates:

Poor muscling

Heavy finish

High capacity

Good balance

3. Well-muscled animals show fullness in the:

Back, loin, and rump

Face

Hooves

Tail

2. Traits visible in the head and general appearance describe:

Breed character

Muscle

Frame size

Balance

1. Conformation refers to the arrangement of:

Bone and body tissue

Fat only

Internal organs

Coat color

40. The poll of an animal is the:

Top of the head

Rump area

Rear leg muscle

Tail tip

39. The brisket is found:

Between the front legs

Top of the head

Back of the animal

Rear leg

38. The rump of an animal is located:

Between the loin and tail

Between ribs and belly

Between neck and ribs

Above the hock

37. An immature female is called a:

Heifer (cattle example)

Sow

Bull

Steer

36. Mature females often have:

More evident mammary glands

Less bone structure

Extra neck muscle

Masculine heads

35. Castrated males are distinguished by:

Presence of a sheath

Large neck crest

Very muscular build

Heat cycles

34. Intact male animals are typically:

More muscular

Smaller framed

Feminine-headed

Less muscular

33. The Netherland Dwarf rabbit is known for:

Very small size

Wool production

Large body size

Spotted chain pattern

32. The English Spot rabbit is recognized by:

A chain of spots

Solid color

Dwarf size

Long wool coat

31. The Dutch rabbit is known for:

Its unique color belt pattern

All-white fur

Very long hair

Blue eyes only

30. The Californian rabbit is identified by:

White body with black points

All-white coat

Spotted markings

Solid black fur

29. Persian cats are a breed known for:

Long hair and popularity

Blue eyes only

Triangular head shape

Being hairless

28. Maine **** cats are known for:

Large size

Hairlessness

Short tails

Being the smallest breed

27. American Shorthair cats typically show:

Many color patterns

Only solid colors

No tabby patterns

Long fur

26. Herding dogs are known for:

Controlling movement of livestock

Hunting rabbits

Catching rodents

Pulling sleds

25. Toy dog breeds are characterized as:

Small and not needing much space

Strong scent trackers

Herding specialists

Cold-weather workers

24. Terrier breeds are known for:

Hunting vermin

Retrieving birds

Draft work

Herding livestock

23. Working dogs are used for:

Jobs like drafting or guarding

Hunting small game

Lapdog companionship

Egg production

22. Hound breeds are recognized for:

Strong scent abilities

Herding livestock

Guarding flocks

Pulling sleds

21. Sporting dog breeds are best described as:

Hunting dogs that need exercise

Toy-sized lap dogs

Draft-pulling dogs

Scent-hunting hounds

20. Broad Breasted White turkeys are known for being:

Largest domestic turkey breed

Smallest turkey breed

Black in color

Wild bird crosses

19. The most common broiler cross is:

Cornish × White Plymouth Rock

Rhode Island Red × Leghorn

Jersey Giant × Orpington

Brahma × Silkie

18. Rhode Island Reds are known for:

Laying brown eggs

Laying white eggs

Being a broiler breed

Having white plumage

17. White Leghorns are best known for:

Laying white eggs

Meat production

Brown egg production

Black plumage

16. Nubian goats are known for being:

Dairy animals

Meat animals

Wool producers

Rare pets

15. Boer goats are raised for:

Meat

Dairy

Fiber

Guarding livestock

14. Dorset sheep are considered:

Dual-purpose

Meat only

Wool only

Dairy

13. Merino sheep are known for:

Wool production

Meat production

Small frame size

Spot patterns

12. Suffolk sheep are primarily used for:

Meat

Wool

Dairy

Guard animals

11. Yorkshire swine are known for:

White color and erect ears

Red body

Black body

Belted appearance

10. Hampshire swine are identified by:

Black body with a white belt

Red body and erect ears

Solid white body

Long drooped ears

9. Duroc swine are typically:

Red with drooped ears

Black with white belt

All white with erect ears

Spotted

8. The American Landrace hog is known for:

Long body and large lopped ears

Red body and drooped ears

Black body with white belt

Erect ears and white color

7. Jersey cattle produce:

High butterfat milk

Highest milk quantity

Large framed offspring

Large litters

6. Holstein cattle are best known for:

Highest milk production

High butterfat milk

Small frame size

Red coloring

5. Simmental cattle have:

No set color pattern

Always solid black

Always red with white face

A belt pattern

4. Brahman cattle are well known for their:

Heat tolerance and insect resistance

High butterfat milk

Small frame size

Short ears

3. Charolais cattle are typically:

White to light straw

Red with white face

Solid black

Spotted

2. The Hereford breed is recognized by its:

Red body with a white face

Black coat

Hump and loose skin

All-white body

1. The Angus breed is known for which trait?

High carcass quality

Red color

Long ears

Heat intolerance

25. Why should producers maximize growth, reproduction, and health?

Increases profitability

Reduces feed quality

Eliminates genetic diversity

Prevents law enforcement

24. Producing healthy animals results in ________.

Reduced medical expenses

Higher stress levels

Lower productivity

More welfare violations

23. Tail docking is performed on which species?

Cattle, dogs, sheep, swine

Fish only

Poultry only

Horses only

22. Hot-iron branding is used primarily for ________.

Identification

Weight gain

Health treatment

Reproduction

21. Which practice reduces horns in cattle?

Dehorning

Tail docking

Branding

Trimming

20. Declawing is a physical alteration associated with ________.

Cats

Goats

Horses

Poultry

19. Beak trimming is commonly performed on ________.

Poultry

Cattle

Dogs

Sheep

18. Which device provides electric signals to control animals?

Electronic collar

Halter

Kennel gate

Identification tag

17. Caged layers refers to confinement of which animals?

Poultry

Swine

Sheep

Goats

16. Which housing is controversial for sows?

Gestation crates

Free-range barns

Deep bedding systems

Pasture shelters

15. What is subtherapeutic antibiotic use?

Low doses for growth or prevention

Treating sick animals only

Removing all antibiotics

Natural feeding strategies

14. Supplemental hormones are NOT allowed in which animals?

Poultry & swine

Beef cattle

Dairy cattle

Sheep

13. What involves inserting foreign genes into an organism?

Transgenics

Hormone therapy

Clipping

Enrichment

12. Feeding GMOs to animals is an example of ________.

Biotechnology use

Animal welfare violation

Animal rights policy

Natural management

11. Which practice involves creating genetically identical animals?

Cloning

Tail docking

Dehorning

Declawing

10. What do state “lemon laws” for pets provide?

Legal recourse for animals with defects

Refunds for pet food

Free veterinary care

Mandatory spay/neuter

9. What law addresses care for animals used in biomedical research?

Health Research Extension Act

Animal Welfare Act

Animal Protection Initiative

Veterinary Research Act

8. When was the most recent revision of the Animal Welfare Act?

2008

1966

1995

2020

7. When was the Animal Welfare Act originally passed?

1966

1950

1985

2008

6. What federal law sets standards for minimum animal care?

Animal Welfare Act

Clean Water Act

Food Safety Act

Wildlife Restoration Act

5. Why is assessing animal well-being difficult?

No universally accepted measures

Animals cannot feel stress

All animals behave the same

Welfare is not measurable

4. Decisions about welfare laws should be based on ________.

Scientific information

Public opinion polls

Social media trends

Celebrity endorsements

3. Most producers and researchers believe in ________.

Animal welfare

Animal rights

Eliminating all animal agriculture

Replacing all animals with robotics

2. What must be provided for proper animal welfare?

Housing, sanitation, nutrition, water & vet care

Minimal food and water only

Unlimited space only

Access to outdoor pasture only

1. What is the definition of animal welfare?

Humane care & treatment of animals

Maximum production of animals

Use of animals for entertainment only

Genetic modification of animals

What does regenerative agriculture emphasize?

Improving soil and ecosystem health

Maximum chemical application

Permanent confinement

Eliminating all livestock

What trend reflects consumer desire for minimal chemical input?

No added hormones

High-starch diets

Imported feed

Enriched soil

Which trend has influenced the poultry industry?

Increase in poultry consumption

Decrease in poultry demand

Elimination of poultry farms

Reduction of feed efficiency

What type of species are wolves categorized as in the pet trend list?

Exotic animals

Companion animals

Livestock

Aquaculture species

What is required before purchasing an exotic species?

Check with state wildlife authorities

Ask local grocery stores

Contact a livestock auction

Request a pet store coupon

Which exotic animal is commonly sought but often illegal?

Non-domesticated canines

Dairy cattle

Domestic rabbits

Turkeys

Which age group is increasing pet ownership?

Younger generations

Elderly only

Middle-aged farmers

Children under age five

Which is an example of a hybrid dog?

Labradoodle

German Shepherd

Beagle

Bloodhound

What is a key reason hybrid “designer breeds” are bred?

To achieve desirable characteristics

To reduce pet ownership

To increase wild traits

To remove breed standards

What genetic service is increasing for companion animals?

Pet DNA testing

Breed replacement

Microchip removal

Hair-pattern analysis

Which innovation signals health concerns in cats?

PrettyLitter

Ozone litter

Glow-dust pellets

Sand crystals

Which technology helps owners view pets when away?

Dog cameras

Motion collars

Anti-shedding lamps

Noise blockers

Which trend relates to purchasing pet food online?

Subscription boxes

Closed-market sales

Government-issued feed

Farm-based pickup only

Which supplement is increasingly used for pet health?

Probiotics

Asphalt additives

Synthetic leather

Human athletic supplements

Which is an example of a limited-ingredient pet food trend?

Single-source protein

High-fat kibble

Artificial dyes

Multi-protein blends

What diet trend is popular due to health and well-being concerns?

Specialty pet diets

Increased canned food

Reduced water intake

Higher fat foods

What term refers to animals raised using sunlight, grazing, and open fields?

Pasture-raised

Grain-restricted

Indoor-fed

Mechanically supplemented

What phrase describes meat produced without antibiotics?

Antibiotic-free

Steroid-free

Cage-free

Low-protein

Which product category is increasing in consumer demand?

Organic products

Genetically modified feed

Low-protein meats

Imported dairy

Which food animal product consumption is declining?

Beef

Poultry

Fish

Eggs

What consumer trend has decreased in recent years?

Fluid milk consumption

Poultry consumption

Fish consumption

Organic product interest

What is increasing within food animal tracking systems?

Animal identification and traceability

Use of manual inventory logs

Elimination of ID tags

Random identification numbers

What factor regarding farmland is becoming increasingly limited?

Farmland availability

Prices of grain

Water quality

Market hog weights

Why is it difficult for new farmers to start operations?

High financial capital required

Lack of interest

Too many government grants

Surplus of farmland

What trend is occurring with the average age of farm operators?

It is increasing

It is decreasing

It stays the same

It is random

Why is size of operations increasing?

Economies of scale needed to stay competitive

Farmers prefer larger fields

Animals require more land

Government restricts small farms

What is one result of urbanization in agriculture?

Loss of agricultural land

Higher beef consumption

More small farms

Increased farm operators

What type of development continues to convert farmland?

Commercial and residential development

Agricultural expansion

Federal conservation projects

Increased livestock herds

What does farm consolidation typically lead to?

Fewer farms that are larger in size

More small independent farms

Lower production efficiency

Fewer government regulations

What is farm consolidation?

Larger farms acquiring land from smaller farms

Smaller farms dividing land

Only dairy farms expanding

Government purchasing farmland

30. Pet sales generate how much annually?

$2.1 billion

$100 million

$10 billion

$50,000

29. Pet products generate how much annually?

$14.5 billion

$500,000

$100 million

$200 billion

28. Veterinary services generate how much annually?

$21.0 billion

$500,000

$2 million

$100 billion

27. Pet food manufacturing generates how much annually?

$32.3 billion

$1.2 million

$7 million

$100,000

26. What percent of households own reptiles?

4%

20%

0%

50%

25. What percent of households own fish?

12%

2%

55%

1%

24. What percent of households own at least one cat?

38%

5%

80%

12%

23. What percent of households own at least one dog?

48%

10%

75%

20%

22. What fraction of U.S. households owns at least one pet?

Two-thirds

One-half

One-fourth

One-tenth

21. The total economic impact of the U.S. pet industry is:

Over $221 billion

Under $10 billion

Exactly $50 billion

$15 million

20. The U.S. pet industry generates more than how much in salaries and wages?

$60 billion

$1 billion

$5 million

$600 million

19. The U.S. pet industry provides approximately how many jobs?

1.3 million

10,000

50,000

400,000

18. Top turkey states include:

North Carolina, Minnesota, Indiana

Florida, Georgia, Texas

Colorado, Idaho, Maine

Oregon, Nevada, Arizona

17. Turkeys make up what percent of poultry sales?

12%

2%

50%

75%

16. Egg-producing states include:

Iowa, Georgia, Ohio

Texas, California, Florida

Utah, Nevada, Arizona

Maryland, Alabama, Colorado

15. Top broiler states include:

Georgia, North Carolina, Arkansas

Ohio, Florida, Oregon

Maine, Montana, Hawaii

Kansas, Utah, Nevada

14. Broilers make up what percent of total poultry sales?

67%

10%

33%

95%

13. The U.S. is the world leader in production of which poultry product?

Broiler meat

Turkey eggs

Goose meat

Duck meat

12. Top hog-producing states include:

Iowa, Minnesota, North Carolina

Texas, Washington, Kentucky

Colorado, Maine, Georgia

Nevada, Utah, Arizona

11. Pork exports average how many pounds per year?

Over 7 billion

Under 1 million

500 million

100,000

10. Pork consumption in the U.S. per capita has:

Remained stable

Rapidly decreased

Rapidly increased

Become illegal

9. Since 1990, the number of hog farms has:

Declined by over 70%

Doubled

Stayed the same

Been banned in several states

8. Top dairy states include:

California, Wisconsin, Idaho

Georgia, Kansas, Nevada

Florida, Maine, Texas

Oregon, Alaska, Arizona

7. Despite fewer dairy operations, total milk production:

Has increased per operation

Has disappeared

Is entirely imported

Is unstable

6. Dairy farms in the U.S. are mostly:

Family-owned

Large corporations

State-operated

Nonprofit entities

5. Top beef-producing states include:

Nebraska, Texas, Kansas

Iowa, Ohio, Georgia

Florida, Utah, Oregon

Maine, Idaho, Hawaii

4. The U.S. is the world’s largest consumer of:

Beef

Pork

Eggs

Turkey

3. Which industry provides the largest share of total U.S. agricultural cash receipts?

Beef cattle

Dairy

Poultry

Goats

2. Increased future demand for U.S. animal products will mainly come from:

Exports

Domestic production

School lunch programs

State fairs

1. Food animal products account for what portion of total annual agricultural cash receipts?

Over half

Less than 10%

Exactly one-third

Declining each year

An animal is fed a diet high in soybean meal, fish meal, and dried milk. The animal is being supplied with ample amounts of the building blocks containing nitrogen. What major nutrient is being emphasized in this diet?

Proteins (amino acids)

Carbohydrates

Fats and oils

Minerals

A breeder is preparing a female animal for breeding to improve her conception rate. Which ration should be fed, as it contains the largest amount of protein, minerals, and vitamins compared to other rations?

Reproduction ration

Maintenance ration

Work ration

Fattening ration

A feed mill accidentally included excessive molasses (a supplement) in a feed batch. What two properties of the feed are MOST likely to be affected by this mistake?

Palatability (taste) and reduced dust

Crude fiber level and moisture level

Microbial activity and energy value

Vitamin concentration and mineral balance

A kitten needs an extremely high-protein diet for muscle and tissue development. Compared to an adult dog, how much protein does the material indicate a cat needs?

Twice as much protein as a dog

The same amount of protein as a dog

Less protein than a dog

Protein that is strictly plant-based

A commercial layer hen operation is providing a diet composed mainly of corn and other cereal grains. These ingredients are primarily supplying the hen with what major nutrient for energy?

Carbohydrates

Minerals

Proteins

Vitamins

A pig (omnivore) and a goat (herbivore) are being fed. If the pig is fed a diet comprised primarily of concentrates, what type of feed ingredient will primarily make up the goat's diet?

Roughages

Animal-based proteins

Fats and oils

Synthetic nitrogen sources

A nutritionist is formulating a diet for an adult lactating dairy cow. To encourage high milk production, the ration should be formulated to be high in which three specific components?

Protein, calcium, and phosphorus

Water, urea, and cellulose

Carbohydrates, iron, and Vitamins B

Fat, copper, and salt

A high-performance ranch horse has an extremely rigorous work schedule. Which change is MOST critical to make to its ration to supply the extra energy needed to perform its tasks?

Increase the amounts of fats and carbohydrates.

Decrease the crude fiber levels below 18%.

Increase the water content by over 80%.

Feed only roughages and no concentrates.

A producer is trying to increase the body mass (muscle and tissue) of young beef cattle before sale. Which specific type of ration should the cattle primarily be receiving to meet this goal?

Growth ration

Maintenance ration

Fattening ration

Reproduction ration

Which two groups of animals have diets that are composed primarily of concentrates?

Swine and poultry

Cattle and goats

Horses and rabbits

Dogs and cats

Which animals have diets that are mostly comprised of roughages, such as cattle, sheep, and goats?

Ruminants

Swine and poultry

Dogs and cats

Reptiles and amphibians

Which ration requires increased amounts of fats and carbohydrates to supply extra energy for physical activity?

Work ration

Growth ration

Production ration

Reproduction ration

Which ration is fed to provide for the storage of nutrients not used for maintenance, growth, or other functions?

Fattening ration

Reproduction ration

Work ration

Maintenance ration

Which ration contains the largest amount of protein, minerals, and vitamins to support gestation and parturition?

Reproduction ration

Maintenance ration

Work ration

Fattening ration

Which ration is used to address the production of milk, eggs, or wool?

Production ration

Maintenance ration

Growth ration

Fattening ration

Which ration is needed for increasing the size of bones, muscles, and organs, and is high in energy and protein?

Growth ration

Maintenance ration

Work ration

Fattening ration

Which ration meets the basic nutrient requirements to keep vital body processes functioning?

Maintenance ration

Growth ration

Production ration

Reproduction ration

What is considered by many to be the most important nutrient, making up 40–80% of an animal's body?

Water

Protein

Fat

Carbohydrate

What are the inorganic materials (containing no carbon) needed in small amounts for growth of bones, teeth, and body tissue?

Minerals

Vitamins

Proteins

Carbohydrates

What are the trace organic compounds that help regulate many body functions and are designated by letters like A, D, and K?

Vitamins

Minerals

Amino acids

Enzymes

Urea is an example of a synthetic nitrogen source used to provide which nutrient?

Protein

Carbohydrates

Fats

Vitamins

Soybean meal, cottonseed meal, and alfalfa meal are examples of which type of protein source?

Plant sources

Animal sources

Synthetic sources

Mineral sources

What mineral-containing element is present in proteins, besides carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen?

Nitrogen

Sulfur

Phosphorus

Iron

What organic compounds, made up of amino acids, supply material to build body tissues like muscles, skin, and hair?

Proteins

Carbohydrates

Minerals

Vitamins

Unused carbohydrates in the animal's body are stored as which nutrient?

Fat

Protein

Cellulose

Water

What nutrient provides 2–2.25 times the energy value of carbohydrates?

Fats and oils

Proteins

Minerals

Water

What is the most commonly grown grain in the United States?

Corn

Wheat

Oats

Barley

What are carbohydrates chemically composed of?

Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

Nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon

Sulfur, phosphorus, and iron

Carbon and nitrogen

What nutrient is the primary source of energy, made up of sugars, starches, and cellulose?

Carbohydrates

Fats and oils

Proteins

Vitamins

What feed material is included for a specific purpose, such as improving palatability or reducing dust?

Supplements

Concentrates

Roughages

Carbohydrates

What is the term for feed ingredients with crude fiber levels under 18%?

Concentrates

Roughages

Supplements

Forages

What is the term for feed ingredients with crude fiber levels over 18%?

Roughages

Concentrates

Supplements

Grains

What classification of animal eats items of both plant and animal origin?

Omnivore

Herbivore

Carnivore

Non-ruminant

What classification of animal eats an animal-based diet?

Carnivore

Herbivore

Omnivore

Monogastric

What classification of animal eats a plant-based diet?

Herbivore

Carnivore

Omnivore

Ruminant

What term describes the feed and water that an animal receives?

Diet

Ration

Nutrient

Supplement

What is the total amount and kind of feed that an animal is provided during a 24-hour period?

Ration

Diet

Nutrient

Supplement

What is a single feed component that helps support the life of an animal?

Nutrient

Ration

Supplement

Diet

What is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth?

Nutrition

Ration

Diet

Supplement

An animal is diagnosed with a deficiency in the pancreatic enzyme Lipase. This deficiency would directly impact the breakdown of which major nutrient into fatty acids?

Fats

Proteins

Sugars

Starches

A newborn calf is nursing on milk. While the calf is young and primarily on a liquid diet, which stomach compartment is the only functional portion for enzymatic digestion?

Abomasum

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

A veterinary student is dissecting the digestive tract of a horse. Based on the material, what accessory organ, which stores bile in many other species, should the student expect to find missing?

Gallbladder

Pancreas

Liver

Spleen

A rancher wants to maximize the conversion of low-quality forage protein into essential amino acids for his cattle. Which stomach compartment, the primary site for microbial fermentation, is responsible for this critical conversion?

Rumen

Abomasum

Omasum

Reticulum

A pig swallows a mouthful of starchy feed. The salivary amylase begins to break down starch into maltose. In which organ will the action of this salivary amylase be stopped by the presence of hydrochloric acid?

Stomach

Duodenum (small intestine)

Esophagus

Large Intestine

A feed company is developing a supplement to maximize the absorption of simple molecules like amino acids and sugars. They should focus on increasing the surface area and efficiency of which structure in the small intestine?

Villi

Cecum

Papillae of the Omasum

Cloaca

A horse owner decides to switch their animal to a high-roughage diet of hay. Which digestive structure, large in this hind-gut fermenter, is primarily responsible for breaking down this roughage using microbial action?

Cecum

Stomach

Abomasum

Gizzard

A veterinarian suspects a sick cow is suffering from Hardware Disease. Which stomach compartment should a small magnet be inserted into for prevention, and what is its interior lining described as?

Reticulum; Honeycomb

Rumen; Carpet

Omasum; Many layers of tissue

Abomasum; Smoothest

Which accessory organ is not present in a horse?

Gallbladder

Liver

Pancreas

Spleen

Which accessory organ is the largest gland in the body and produces bile that acts on fats?

Liver

Pancreas

Gallbladder

Spleen

What enlarged part of the avian digestive tract is located just before the vent where the digestive and reproductive tracts combine?

Cloaca

Vent

Gizzard

Ceca

How many ceca do birds typically have, unlike most other animals?

Two

One

Three

Zero

Which oval-shaped muscular organ in birds crushes and mixes feed, and contains grit and gravel?

Gizzard

Crop

Proventriculus

Beak

What is the "true stomach" in avian species where gastric acids and enzymes aid in the digestive process?

Proventriculus

Gizzard

Crop

Cloaca

What is the oval sac-like structure in the avian digestive system that stores and softens feed?

Crop

Proventriculus

Gizzard

Cloaca

What avian organ is used to peck and take in feed whole because birds do not have teeth?

Beak

Gizzard

Proventriculus

Crop

What action is used in the cecum of hind-gut fermenters to break down roughages?

Microbial action

Reverse peristalsis

Physical chewing

Secretion of hydrochloric acid

What enzyme is contained in monogastric saliva to help change some starch to maltose?

Salivary amylase

Gastric lipase

Pepsin

Trypsin

What is the main function of the large intestine in the digestive process?

Absorbs water and adds mucus to form feces

Primary site of nutrient absorption

Converts protein into amino acids

Secretes hydrochloric acid

Which organ serves little to no function for most ruminant animals?

Cecum

Small intestine

Large intestine

Abomasum

What is the primary site of nutrient absorption in the digestive tract, aided by villi?

Small intestine

Large intestine

Stomach

Cecum

The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are the three sections of which digestive organ?

Small intestine

Large intestine

Cecum

Esophagus

Which acid is secreted in the abomasum to stop the action of salivary amylase?

Hydrochloric acid

Gastric lipase

Pepsin

Trypsin

Which part of the ruminant stomach is the only functional portion when the animal is born?

Abomasum

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

Which part of the ruminant stomach is responsible for grinding and squeezing roughage to remove liquid?

Omasum

Abomasum

Rumen

Reticulum

What item is inserted into the reticulum to prevent Hardware Disease?

A small magnet

A large piece of roughage

Antibiotics

A plastic shield

What is the common term for the illness caused by cattle swallowing foreign objects like nails or wire?

Hardware disease

Gastric illness

Omasum blockage

Microbial imbalance

Which compartment of the ruminant stomach has an interior lining that resembles a honeycomb pattern?

Reticulum

Rumen

Omasum

Abomasum

Which chamber of the ruminant stomach is the primary site for microbial fermentation?

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

Abomasum

The rumen and reticulum together make up what percentage of the ruminant stomach capacity?

85%

25%

50%

100%

The interior lining of which ruminant stomach section is described as resembling carpet?

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

Abomasum

What process in ruminants brings the bolus from the stomach back to the mouth for rechewing?

Reverse peristalsis

Forward peristalsis

Absorption

Prehension

Which type of animal contains specialized structures such as the crop, proventriculus, and gizzard to soften and grind food?

Avian species

Ruminants

Monogastric animals

Hind-gut fermenters

Which non-ruminant animals have a developed cecum that contains bacteria to break down roughage?

Hind-gut fermenters

Ruminants

Monogastric animals

Avian species

Swine, dogs, and cats are examples of which type of animal with a single-compartment stomach?

Monogastric animals

Ruminants

Hind-gut fermenters

Avian species

What type of animals have stomachs that are divided into multiple chambers and digest large amounts of roughages?

Ruminants

Monogastric animals

Hind-gut fermenters

Avian species

What are the small finger-like projections in the intestinal wall that increase surface area and aid in digestive absorption?

Villi

Microbes

Bolus

Chyme

What is the process of forcing feed back up the esophagus to be chewed further, also known as "chewing the cud"?

Rumination

Peristalsis

Absorption

Prehension

What is the process of grasping feed with lips, tongue, and/or teeth?

Prehension

Rumination

Peristalsis

Digestion

What is the term for involuntary muscular contractions that create wave-like movements to move canal contents?

Peristalsis

Rumination

Prehension

Absorption

What single-celled organisms are found in the rumen and reticulum and aid in digestion?

Microbes

Villi

Enzymes

Amino acids

What is the liquid secreted by glands that contains water, mucus, hydrochloric acid, and digestive enzymes?

Gastric juice

Bile

Chyme

Bolus

What are the organic catalyst substances that speed up the digestive process?

Enzymes

Amino acids

Villi

Microbes

What is the term for partially digested feed that is acidic, semifluid, gray, and pulpy, produced in the stomach and sent to the small intestine?

Chyme

Bolus

Enzymes

Villi

What is the term for a small mass of feed once swallowed in animals?

Bolus

Chyme

Villi

Gastric juice

What are the building blocks of protein that contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen?

Amino acids

Fatty acids

Carbohydrates

Bile

What is the process of simple molecules passing through cell membranes of the lining in the small intestine into the blood?

Absorption

Digestion

Peristalsis

Rumination

What is the process of breaking feed down into simple substances that can be absorbed by the body?

Digestion

Absorption

Rumination

Prehension

A goose egg has been placed in an incubator alongside chicken and turkey eggs. If all were set on the same day, on which approximate day should the goose egg be expected to hatch, relative to the chicken egg?

About 7 days later (28–33 days vs. 21 days)

At the same time (28 days)

About 10 days earlier

At the same time as the turkey egg, but later than the chicken egg

A male bird has a reproductive dysfunction where the seminal fluids and sperm cells are not successfully transported from the testicles to the cloaca for copulation. Which tube is MOST likely blocked or non-functional?

Vas deferens

Oviduct

Urethra

Papilla

A chicken egg is being candled on Day 12 of incubation. According to the development stages, which feature should the observer expect to be visible or fully formed?

Toe nails are visible and toes are fully formed.

Only some tissue development is visible.

The yolk sac is drawn into the body cavity.

The chick is performing internal and external pip.

If a hen's left oviduct is damaged at the magnum segment, which part of the egg would be incorrectly formed or missing when the egg is laid?

The thick albumen (egg white)

The calcified shell and pigment

The shell membrane and shape

The yolk and site of fertilization

On which day of incubation should egg rotation be stopped?

Day 18

Day 1

Day 7

Day 21

What is the minimum recommended frequency for rotating fertilized eggs during incubation?

At least 3 times a day

Once every 24 hours

Only when candling

Only on Day 18

Which factor affecting embryo development initiates the process?

Temperature

Humidity

Rotation of egg

Candling

A critical factor in the last portion of incubation is increased humidity. What is the purpose of this increase?

To soften the shell so the chick can break through it.

To initiate embryo development.

To rotate the egg more easily.

To help the yolk sac draw into the body.

On which day of incubation does the embryo begin to breathe through the air cell and is referred to as a chick?

Day 20

Day 1

Day 7

Day 21

What process involves shining a light through an egg to examine the embryo for a dark spot and development of blood vessels?

Candling

Palpation

Incubation

Rotation

What is the typical incubation period for a duck egg?

28 days

21 days

33 days

16 days

What is the typical incubation period for a chicken egg?

21 days

28 days

16 days

33 days

What is the name of the organ on the wall of the cloaca that deposits sperm into the hen’s reproductive tract?

Papilla

Vas deferens

Testicle

Uterus

What is the location of the junction for the urinary, reproductive, and digestive systems prior to excretion in birds?

Cloaca

Papilla

Testicles

Infundibulum

Which male organ carries seminal fluids and sperm cells to the cloaca?

Vas deferens

Papilla

Urethra

Infundibulum

Where are the testicles of the male avian species stored?

Inside the body cavity

In an external scrotum

Inside the cloaca

Just below the papilla

In which part of the oviduct is the calcified shell formed and the pigment of the cuticle applied?

Uterus

Infundibulum

Isthmus

Cloaca

Which part of the oviduct is where the shell membrane is applied and the shape of the egg is determined?

Isthmus

Magnum

Uterus

Infundibulum

Which part of the oviduct is where the egg white (thick albumen) is applied?

Magnum

Infundibulum

Isthmus

Cloaca

Which part of the oviduct is responsible for receiving the yolk and is the site where the egg is fertilized?

Infundibulum

Isthmus

Magnum

Uterus

The avian ovary produces which two hormones?

Estrogen and progesterone

Testosterone and adrenaline

Oxytocin and prolactin

Insulin and thyroxine

In birds, which ovary is responsible for ovum production?

The left ovary

The right ovary

Both ovaries equally

The vestigial ovary

How often do chickens typically lay an egg?

Every 24–28 hours

Once per week

Only if a rooster is present

Once per month

Where does the embryo of an avian species develop?

Outside of the body, inside a calcified eggshell

Inside the cloaca

Inside the uterus

Inside the oviduct

A zookeeper is monitoring a pregnant cat (Felis catus) that is actively going through the process of giving birth. What specific term will the zookeeper use to document this event in their log?

Queening

Calving

Kindling

Kidding

Before semen is transported through the urethra, the Cowper's gland secretes a fluid. What is the primary purpose of this fluid?

To clean and neutralize the urethra, making it safe for the sperm.

To store the mature sperm cells before ejaculation.

To produce the majority of the fluid volume for transport.

To filter all fluid flowing through the urethra.

A veterinarian is called because a dog, 48 hours after whelping, is showing signs of illness. The illness is confirmed to be due to the afterbirth not being expelled. Which stage of parturition was incomplete?

The expulsion of the placenta and other membranes.

The contraction of the uterus muscles.

The breaking of the second water bag.

The release of the egg cell from the ovary.

A young female pig reaches the age where she is capable of conception and carrying a litter. What is the biological term for the stage of development she has reached?

Puberty

Gestation

Lactation

Farrowing

If the muscular tissue in a male's scrotum fails to respond to a decrease in ambient temperature, what is the primary risk to the reproductive function?

The testicles will remain too low, which can negatively affect sperm production.

The penis will be unable to retract inside the sheath.

Testosterone production will cease completely.

The urethra will not be properly neutralized by the Cowper’s gland.

A male animal is producing viable sperm, but collected semen shows poor sperm viability and poor motility. A defect in which accessory gland is the MOST likely cause, as it produces fluids that protect and transport sperm?

Seminal vesicles

Testicles

Cowper's gland

Epididymis

A veterinarian assists with a difficult birth and finds the fetus is presenting hips first, rather than front feet and nose. According to the material, what is the correct classification for this situation?

Abnormal presentation that could cause severe problems.

Normal presentation for this stage of birth.

The result of a premature birth, which is usually harmless.

A sign that gestation was too long.

If the left oviduct of a female mammal is blocked, an egg released from the left ovary would be unable to participate in which critical reproductive event?

Fertilization

Oogenesis (egg production)

Implantation

Hormone production

A veterinarian is asked to confirm pregnancy in a mare only 18 days after breeding. Which method, though not ideal for accuracy at this time, offers the best chance for the earliest possible detection?

Blood test looking for pregnancy-specific hormones.

Palpation for the fetus via a physical exam.

Ultrasound to detect the fetus in the uterus.

Waiting until 40 days for optimal accuracy.

A farmer observes a pregnant cow has just expelled the first water bag. According to the parturition process, what is the expected next major event in the calving process?

The second water bag containing the fetus breaks open.

Increased estrogen causes uterine contraction.

The afterbirth is expelled several hours later.

The act of fertilization occurs in the oviduct.

Which part of the male anatomy consists of tissue that holds the testicles and epididymis and raises or lowers them in response to temperature?

Scrotum

Sheath

Vas deferens

Prostate gland

What is the function of the cervix?

To create a barrier between the developing fetus and the exterior of the body

To receive the penis during copulation

To produce egg cells (ova)

To store mature sperm cells

Which structure is the site of fertilized egg implantation and fetal development until birth?

Uterus

Cervix

Oviduct

Vagina

Which tube connects the infundibulum to the uterus and is the specific site of fertilization?

Oviduct (Fallopian tube)

Vas deferens

Urethra

Cervix

Which female organ is the site of estrogen and progesterone hormone production?

Ovaries

Oviduct

Uterus

Vagina

What is the primary site of egg (ovum) production (oogenesis) in the female reproductive system?

Ovaries

Oviduct

Uterus

Cervix

What is the surgical procedure for the removal of the female reproductive organs?

Spaying

Castration

Calving

Kindling

What is the age at which animals reach sexual maturity and are able to reproduce called?

Puberty

Gestation

Parturition

Ovulation

What is the last stage of parturition, which, if not expelled, can cause the mother to become sick?

The placenta and other membranes (afterbirth)

The first water bag

The second water bag

The fetus

What is the first event of the parturition process mentioned to be caused by increased estrogen?

Uterus muscles contract

First water bag appears

Second water bag breaks

Afterbirth is expelled

What is the hormone that increases to cause the uterus muscles to contract at the start of parturition?

Estrogen

Progesterone

Testosterone

Insulin

Which is the correct normal presentation for a fetus at the beginning of parturition?

Front feet first, nose tucked between front legs

Hips first, tail tucked

Back legs first, head resting on back

Shoulders first, head back

During which stage of the reproductive cycle does the fetus develop in the uterus?

Gestation

Lactation

Puberty

Parturition

After a period of embryological development, what is the developing animal referred to as?

Fetus

Embryo

Zygote

Follicle

The act of giving birth in dogs is known as:

Whelping

Farrowing

Lambing

Kindling

The act of giving birth in cats is known as:

Queening

Kidding

Whelping

Calving

The act of giving birth in swine is known as:

Farrowing

Queening

Calving

Whelping

The act of giving birth in sheep is known as:

Lambing

Calving

Whelping

Kindling

The act of giving birth in rabbits is known as:

Kindling

Farrowing

Lambing

Kidding

The act of giving birth in goats is known as:

Kidding

Calving

Whelping

Queening

The act of giving birth in cattle is known as:

Calving

Kidding

Lambing

Kindling

What is the general term for the act of giving birth?

Parturition

Lactation

Gestation

Kindling

What is the process where the egg cell is released from the ovary?

Ovulation

Fertilization

Oogenesis

Spermatogenesis

What is the term for the period of time that milk is secreted by the mammary glands?

Lactation

Gestation

Ovulation

Farrowing

For most animals, how long after breeding is generally recommended for the most accurate pregnancy detection via ultrasound or palpation?

30 to 40 days

1 to 5 days

10 to 15 days

50 to 60 days

What is considered the earliest method used to detect pregnancy by looking for hormones or proteins?

Blood tests

Palpation

Ultrasound

X-ray imaging

What term describes the length of time during which a female is pregnant?

Gestation

Lactation

Puberty

Parturition

What is the reproductive process where the sperm and egg cells unite?

Fertilization

Ovulation

Parturition

Implantation

What is the term for the first milk produced after birth that contains antibodies for offspring immunity?

Colostrum

Gestation

Lactation

Afterbirth

What is the term for the surgical removal of testicles in a male animal?

Castration

Spaying

Parturition

Farrowing

35. Fish tend to eat more when:

Water temperature increases

Light is reduced

Water is cold

Oxygen is low

34. Companion birds primarily prefer diets of:

Cereal grains or oil seeds

Meat scraps

High-fat milk replacers

Roughage hay

33. Amphibians and reptiles primarily eat:

Animal proteins

Grains

Roughages

Mineral blocks

32. Rabbits and pocket pets do best on:

Pelleted commercial feeds

Large amounts of leafy vegetables

Only grains

Only fruits

31. Cats need approximately twice as much ___ as dogs.

Protein

Carbohydrates

Vitamins

Water

30. Puppies require diets higher in:

Protein

Minerals

Fiber

Fat

29. Swine and poultry diets are composed mostly of:

Concentrates

Roughages

Silage

Minerals

28. Diets for cattle, sheep, and goats consist mostly of:

Roughages

Concentrates

Supplements

Oils

27. Animals needing extra energy for activity require increased:

Fats and carbohydrates

Minerals

Water

Vitamins

26. Rations that provide nutrients for storage not used in other functions are:

Fattening rations

Growth rations

Work rations

Maintenance rations

25. The ration containing the highest levels of protein, minerals, and vitamins is the:

Reproduction ration

Fattening ration

Maintenance ration

Growth ration

24. Rations used for milk, eggs, or wool production are:

Production rations

Maintenance rations

Work rations

Growth rations

23. Rations high in energy and protein to increase body size are:

Growth rations

Work rations

Fattening rations

Reproduction rations

22. A ration that meets only the basic needs of the animal is a:

Maintenance ration

Production ration

Growth ration

Work ration

21. The nutrient that makes up 40–80% of an animal’s body is:

Water

Protein

Fat

Minerals

20. Inorganic materials needed in small amounts for body processes are:

Minerals

Vitamins

Carbohydrates

Amino acids

19. Organic compounds that regulate body functions and are known by letters are:

Vitamins

Minerals

Proteins

Sugars

18. Meat meal and fish meal are examples of:

Animal protein sources

Carbohydrates

Roughages

Vitamins

17. Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are examples of:

Plant protein sources

Vitamin sources

Mineral sources

Energy supplements

16. Proteins are primarily made up of:

Amino acids

Sugars

Lipids

Vitamins

15. Unused carbohydrates in the animal body are stored as:

Fat

Protein

Water

Minerals

14. Fats and oils provide how much more energy than carbohydrates?

2–2.25 times

4 times

10 times

Same amount

13. Corn, wheat, oats, and barley are sources of:

Carbohydrates

Protein

Minerals

Water

12. Carbohydrates are found in the largest quantities in:

Cereal grains

Forages

Minerals

Fats

11. The primary source of energy in livestock feeds is:

Carbohydrates

Vitamins

Minerals

Water

10. A feed added for a specific nutrient or purpose is a:

Supplement

Concentrate

Roughage

Additive

9. Feed with less than 18% crude fiber is a:

Concentrate

Roughage

Vitamin

Mineral

8. Feed with more than 18% crude fiber is classified as:

Roughage

Concentrate

Supplement

Protein feed

7. Animals that eat both plant and animal material are:

Omnivores

Herbivores

Carnivores

Producers

6. Animals like cats and ferrets that eat animal-based diets are:

Carnivores

Herbivores

Omnivores

Ruminants

5. Animals that eat only plant-based diets are:

Herbivores

Carnivores

Omnivores

Insectivores

4. Feed and water that an animal receives daily is called its:

Diet

Ration

Supplement

Concentrate

3. The total amount and kind of feed given to an animal in 24 hours is the:

Ration

Diet

Nutrient

Concentrate

2. A single feed component that supports life is known as a:

Nutrient

Diet

Supplement

Roughage

1. The process of providing food necessary for health and growth is called:

Nutrition

Digestion

Absorption

Ration